Sedition has been defined as bringing or attempt to bring hatred or contempt, or exciting or attempt to excite disaffection towards the Government established by law in India, by words, either spoken or written, or by signs or visible representation or otherwise, under
A. Section 120 of Indian Penal Code
B. Section 120A of Indian Penal Code
C. Section 121A of Indian Penal Code
D. Section 124A of Indian Penal Code
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Oral threat or inducement allegedly given by lawyers to approver not to give any statement against accused
A. Amounts to commission of offence
B. Does not amount to commission of offence
C. Can attract discretion of the court to consider as offence
D. None of the above
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An offence is punishable with imprisonment as well as fine the maximum punishment in default of fine which can be given is
A. Not more than half of the prescribed punishment
B. More than one fourth of the prescribed punishment
C. Not more than one fourth of the maximum prescribed imprisonment for the offence
D. None of these
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Printing or enegrtacing matter knowing it to be defamatory against the president or the Vice-President or the Governor of a State or Administrator of a Union territory or a Minister in respect of his conduct in the discharge of his public functions when instituted upon a complaint made by the public prosecutor and Printing or engraving matter knowing it to be defamatory in any other case is dealt under
A. Section 500 of Indian Penal Code
B. Section 501 of Indian Penal Code
C. Section 502 of Indian Penal Code
D. Section 504 of Indian Penal Code
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Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Section 34, Indian Penal Code creates a substantive offence
B. Section 34, Indian Penal Code introduces the principle of vicarious liability for an offence committed by the co-accused
C. Section 34, Indian Penal Code recognizes that the coparticipant in a crime must be made liable for his act in the commission of the crime by the co-accused
D. Both B and C
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In an adultery the women is punishable as
A. Abettor
B. Co-accused
C. Not punishable
D. None of the above
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(A) Section 511 Indian Penal Code is a residuary clause for punishing attempt to commit any offence.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true and (R) is false
D. Both (A) and (R) are false
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How many kinds of punishment are provided in Section 53 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
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Under which section of the Indian Penal Code is the non-treatment of victim by Public or Private hospitals punishable?
A. Section 166B
B. Section 165A
C. Section 228A
D. Section 376D
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Harm in Section 94, Indian Penal Code means:
A. Injurious mental reaction
B. Infectious mental disease
C. Injurious mental condition
D. All of them
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The period of limitation for a Court to take cognizance of an offence punishable with imprisonment for seven years, is
A. Six months
B. One year
C. Three years
D. Unlimited
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Point out the correct statement:
A. Crime is necessarily an immoral act
B. Crime is necessarily an anti-social act
C. Crime is necessarily an anti-communal act
D. Crime is necessarily an anti-religious act
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For an assembly to be unlawful, must have a common object of the kind specified in:
A. Section 140 of Indian Penal Code
B. Section 141 of Indian Penal Code
C. Section 142 of Indian Penal Code
D. Section 144 of Indian Penal Code
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A and B, being joint owners of a horse, A takes the horse out of B's possession intending to use it and later sells it.
A. A has committed offence under Section 390, Indian Penal Code
B. A has committed offence under Section 395, Indian Penal Code
C. A has committed offence under Section 403, Indian Penal Code
D. A has committed offence under Section 420, Indian Penal Code
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In his will, Mr. Y wrote: "I intend my property to be equally divided between my three children A, Sand H." A dishonestly scratched out the name of H, intending that it may be believed that the whole of the property was left to be divided between H and himself alone. A is guilty of
A. Cheating
B. Forgery
C. Misappropriation
D. Theft
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Right of private defence is not available
A. Against any act which in itself is not an offence
B. Against any act which is not legal wrong
C. Against any act which is a moral wrong
D. All the above
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Cognizance of offence of defamation under Chapter XXI of the Indian Penal Code can be taken
A. On a police report
B. On a complaint made by an aggrieved person
C. Suo moto
D. All of the above
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Which one of the following is not an essential element of theft?
A. Dishonest intention
B. Removal from possession
C. Immovable property
D. Without consent
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Right of private defence of the body extends to causing death has been dealt with under
A. Section 100 of Indian Penal Code
B. Section 101 of Indian Penal Code
C. Section 102 of Indian Penal Code
D. Section 103 of Indian Penal Code
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False statement, rumour, etc. circulated with intent to cause mutiny or offence against the public peace is dealt under
A. Section 505 of Indian Penal Code
B. Section 300 of Indian Penal Code
C. Section 299 of Indian Penal Code
D. Section 351 of Indian Penal Code
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